History and fiction
Reason has a quote from Burns’ book on Rand, about her aesthetics-
According to Rand, Aristotle believed that ‘history represents things as they are, while fiction represents them as they might be and ought to be.’ However, as two scholars sympathetic to Rand conclude, this attribution ‘misquotes Aristotle and misrepresents his intent.’ … It appears that Rand drew this concept not from Aristotle, but from Albert Jay Nock. In Memoirs of a Superfluous Man (New York: Harper and Brothers, 1943), 191, Nock writes, ‘History, Aristotle says, represents things only as they are, while fiction represents them as they might be and ought to be.’ In her copy of the book, Rand marked this passage with six vertical lines.
This, whether Rand read many philosophers in the original, has been the subject of much debate. It has been said, for instance, with respect to Kant. Similar questions have been raised in the past about Karl Popper w.r.t. Hegel. I think that its not a big deal as long as the philosopher has not been “misrepresented.” And I don’t think Rand does that.
From a comment I made some months back-
About the real world, I don’t know if you have read Rand’s The Romantic Manifesto, but if you haven’t you might want to do that. Rand is a disciple of Aristotle when it comes to metaphysics, epistemology and aesthetics. Doesn’t mean she borrowed everything wholesale, only that she built upon Aristotle’s works and ideas. In his Poetics, Aristotle writes-
It is, moreover, evident from what has been said, that it is not the function of the poet to relate what has happened, but what may happen – what is possible according to the law of probability or necessity. The poet and the historian differ not by writing in verse or in prose. The work of Herodotus might be put into verse, and it would still be a species of history, with meter no less than without it. The true difference is that one relates what has happened, the other what may happen. Poetry, therefore, is a more philosophical and a higher thing than history: for poetry tends to express the universal, history the particular. By the universal I mean how a person of a certain type on occasion speak or act, according to the law of probability or necessity; and it is this universality at which poetry aims in the names she attaches to the personages. The particular is – for example – what Alcibiades did or suffered.
Rand says-
The most important principle of esthetics of literature was formulated by Aristotle, who said that fiction is of greater philosophical importance than history, because “history represents things as they are, while fiction represents them as they might be and ought to be.”
She called her aesthetics “romantic realism.” The “real” exists, but the people who inhabit the “real” are not your average beggars, alcoholics, rapists, murderers, thieves etc but good people, virtuous people, man as man “ought” to be. And the story is mainly about them.
The same passage from another translation of the Poetics, this one from “The Works of Aristotle”-
From what we have said it will be seen that the poet’s function is to describe, not the thing that has happened, but a kind of thing that might happen, i. e. what is possible as being probable or necessary. The distinction between historian and poet is not in the one writing prose and the other verse—you might put the work of Herodotus into verse, and it would still be a species of history; it consists really in this, that the one describes the thing that has been, and the other a kind of thing that might be. Hence poetry is something more philosophic and of graver import than history, since its statements are of the nature rather of universals, whereas those of history are singulars. By a universal statement I mean one as to what such or such a kind of man will probably or necessarily say or do—which is the aim of poetry, though it affixes proper names to the characters; by a singular statement, one as to what, say, Alcibiades did or had done to him.
I don’t think anyone reading this passage will say that Rand, or Nock for that matter, has misrepresented Aristotle. Its as clear as daylight that she hasn’t.
Update: The two sympathetic Rand scholars. This is their book. I read about them and their book (and even an article of theirs in JARS) some months back, here. Their point is that Aristotle doesn’t imply “ought to be” in the passage I have quoted above. It is my position that probability reduces to might, and necessity to ought.


You mean that the ‘ought’ is not a moral ought but a logical ought?
Makes sense that way too, but I never thought that was how Rand intended it. Do you have any particular passage that supports your interpretation?
K. M.
November 1, 2009 at 10:08 pm
In the extract (from chapter 9 of the Poetics) Aristotle is concerned with “what such or such a kind of man will probably or necessarily say or do.” A virtuous man will not act like Mr. Hyde. If he does, the “why” has to have some logic behind it. Later on in the same chapter, he writes-
The necessity, therefore, is logical in nature; either the nature of the people in question, or the plot itself.
Also note what he says in chapter 10-
Now Rand and her statement. I believe she uses the same statement in two different senses. She uses it in the logical sense when it is part of the starting paragraph of the chapter “Basic Principles of Literature” from her manifesto wherein she discusses “the four essential attributes of a novel,” the theme, plot characterization and style. While she does write against naturalism and also touches topics like man’s nature and actions, her main concern here is how these fit together to form a good novel, not selling romanticism or romantic realism in particular. Here’s what she writes about the plot-
I could quote a few more paragraphs where she writes about purpose, consistency and so on, but the only conclusion I can reach w.r.t. this chapter is that its about the structure of the novel, not morality, metaphysics or value judgments. She never uses “ought to be” again in the entire chapter. (She does use “as he is” in the context of realism on one occasion.) Keeping this in mind, I would say that the “ought” in her statement is a logical one.
Now, the moral sense. In “The Goal of My Writing,” she says-
Note the “things only as they are” in the above paragraph. The statement is Nock’s formulation, but with her own emphasis.
Nock’s Memoirs… came out in ‘43 and so did The Fountainhead. She wrote “goal…” in ‘63 and “basic principles…” in ‘68. What I think has happened in this case is, she transvalued the two phrases (might and ought) so that they meant what she wanted them to mean. That’s why the emphasis. She might have genuinely believed that Aristotle did say the words which Nock put into his mouth (Nock is not off the mark, really). But if she did believe that Aristotle said it the way she thought of it (and expressed the thought in The Fountainhead before she even read it?), she should have hinted at that in “basic principles…” Which she doesn’t. Its a mystery.
Aristotle The Geek
November 2, 2009 at 2:44 am
Burns is relying on Torres’ and Kamhi’s book “What Art Is,” particularly this section-
I don’t know if they have written about the statement appearing in “Goal…” with slightly (the addition of “only”) different wording and emphasis.
Aristotle The Geek
November 2, 2009 at 9:43 pm
Given all this, I am inclined to agree with your interpretation. It would be interesting to know what Aristotle wrote about “romantic realism”.
I have read The Romantic Manifesto once, but have not taken the time to think deeply about aesthetics. And I have read almost no Aristotle. So thanks for all the information. You are quite a scholar!
K. M.
November 3, 2009 at 1:07 am
I couldn’t follow up on this last night, but…I ran a search for “might be and ought to be” and its variations in Google Books and one of the results was this essay. Boeckmann writes-
The footnote to “literalistic” goes like this-
Completing the circle, it is this essay which Burns offers as an alternative explanation in the footnote that Reason cites, and its this essay which is the source for her Nock comment.
It seems that Nock has translated this phrase from the original Greek himself (p. 191 of his book) and Rand used this to reinforce her view of literature. Nock too does something similar-
Its possible that she read the Poetics later on (she purchased a tome on Aristotle which contains the complete text of the Bywater translation) and later on distinguished between the two senses.
What’s interesting is how a single sentence can have so much hidden behind it.
# “It would be interesting to know what Aristotle wrote about ‘romantic realism.’”
I have read it once, and I haven’t yet managed to put it all together. (Aesthetics is interesting, but not as interesting as politics.) But as far as I can tell, he never wrote about ‘romantic realism,’ the marriage of idealism and realism. That is a Randian conception.
Aristotle The Geek
November 3, 2009 at 11:01 pm
From what you have presented, it does seem to me that saying that Aristotle intended ‘ought’ to mean ‘moral ought’ is stretching it.
Nock and Rand (inconsistently as noted) most probably projected their own preferences on Aristotle or at best used some subtext in Aristotle’s writings not explicitly present.
“he never wrote about ‘romantic realism,’”
From Burns’ book
Indeed, in Chapter 25 of the Poetics, he makes clear his view that poetry which presents life as it “ought to be” is but one of three possible types.
That was what I was referring to. What does Aristotle write about the “ought to be” kind of poetry?
K. M.
November 5, 2009 at 1:14 am
This sentence from chapter 25 is what Burns is referring to-
Finding support for romanticism in the Poetics is a difficult task.
In chapter 2, he writes-
In chapter 4 where he discusses the origins of poetry he notes that tragedies (what later became tragedies) were written by “grave” poets who depicted noble actions of noble “personages.”
In chapter 13-
The closest one comes to it, I think, is in chapter 15-
In a section dealing with criticisms (in chapter 25), he writes-
Aristotle The Geek
November 5, 2009 at 4:07 am